Why do people always say Hitler was elected?

Discussion in 'Historical Events Coffee House' started by Jingles, Jul 1, 2012.

  1. Jingles Well-Known Member

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    Because he totally wasn't.
  2. Viking Socrates I am Mad Scientist

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    Greatest thing Hindenburg ever did.
  3. Jack118 Well-Known Member

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    Because while he was appointed to the chancellery By Paul von Hindenburg, the 1933 elections did see the NSDAP winning more offices than any other party, Hitler, shortly after becoming the chancellor passed the enabling house with the support of almost all major German political parties.
  4. Viking Socrates I am Mad Scientist

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    And then all those parties came to regret it.
  5. Jack118 Well-Known Member

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    The parties that voted against (Social Democrats and Communists) sure were pissed at the moderates for siding with Hitler on that one.
  6. Viking Socrates I am Mad Scientist

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    Reactionary to prevent the communist from taking power.
  7. Jingles Well-Known Member

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    See I figured that many of Hitler's votes probably had more to do with him posting gangs of SA thugs outside polling stations than people thinking he was the best choice to lead Germany. While you can say he was elected in a way, it still doesn't make sense in the context that most people usually use it when they want an example of a dictator being elected by popular vote. After all, can you really say the guy won by being most popular when he effectively outlawed the two largest parties in parliament before the election?
  8. Achtung Kommunisten! Well-Known Member

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    I wonder about this as well, but then he was more elected than Churchill, so I let it lie.
  9. Viking Socrates I am Mad Scientist

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    The question really is, would he have been elected?
  10. Achtung Kommunisten! Well-Known Member

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    And the answer is overwhelmingly ja!
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  11. Thefatkid Well-Known Member

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    Hitler was in the right place at the right time. He was elected because of it.
  12. DukeofAwesome Well-Known Member

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    The point that the OP is trying to make is that he wasn't elected, he was appointed.
  13. Thefatkid Well-Known Member

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    A very arguable subject. One must ask if he wasn't "appointed" would he have been elected anyways?
  14. Jack118 Well-Known Member

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    I agree that Hitler's SA definitely affected voting of certain people in certain places, but he still did not win a majority, he became the leader of a coalition government for the time before the enabling act passed.
  15. Viking Socrates I am Mad Scientist

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    I wonder if anyone read Hitler's my struggle and went "Nigger you fucking crazy"
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  16. DukeofAwesome Well-Known Member

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    It's not really arguable since it didn't happen. Chancellors weren't even voted in during the Weimar Republic, with all of them being appointed. The 3 chancellors before Hitler were appointed by Hindenburg as well. If by "elected" you mean in a presidential election, I doubt. The Nazi party only had about 20% of the vote when Hitler became chancellor, although it was the majority party.
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  17. Shisno Doesn't know who did this

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    He was appointed by Hindenburg. He was appointed so as to form a coalition government between the Nazis who were the largest party Reichstag, but did not have more than a 50% majority, the Catholic Moderates and German National People's Party. He would not have been elected to chancellor (because he couldn't) and not to presidency anytime soon after the results of the 1932 election.
  18. Thefatkid Well-Known Member

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    I think the Illuminati put him in office to end Jewish Zionism.
  19. Achtung Kommunisten! Well-Known Member

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    So, what we can conclude is that Hitler is more representative of the people than Winston Churchill or David Cameron.
  20. UtterlyImpeccable Well-Known Member

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    Wow, whoever said democracy was a good idea?

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